Two days after operative repair of a right hip fracture, an 82-year-old woman is somnolent. Her initial postoperative course was uncomplicated. She has a 10-year history of osteoporosis. Her current medications are enoxaparin, morphine, and temazepam. She has never smoked cigarettes. Prior to the hip fracture, she was able to walk short distances with a walker. She is 157 cm (5 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 54 kg (120 lb); BMI is 22 kg/m2. She responds to painful stimuli only. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 88/min and regular, respirations are 10/min, and blood pressure is 132/82 mm Hg. There are jugular venous pulsations 4 cm above the sternal angle. Examination shows severe kyphoscoliosis. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Examination of the right lower extremity shows ecchymoses and edema of the proximal thigh; there is trace ankle edema and no palpable cord. Examination of the left lower extremity shows no edema or palpable cord. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH
7.27
Pco2
58 mm Hg
Po2
60 mm Hg
HCO3−
26 mEq/L
O2 saturation
88%
An x-ray of the chest shows a normal cardiac silhouette, no pleural effusions, and a small area of atelectasis at the right lung base. An ECG shows a normal sinus rhythm and no ischemic changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 2 of 50
2. Question
A 30-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents because of progressive difficulty bearing weight on his left leg. He now refuses to walk. His parents say that he used to walk with no problems. During the past week, he had two nosebleeds and required direct pressure for 20 minutes before they stopped. He was born at 38 weeks’ gestation after an uncomplicated pregnancy and vaginal delivery. He was 51 cm (20 in) long at birth and weighed 2495 g (5 lb 8 oz). There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Immunizations are up-to-date. On arrival, he appears listless. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F). Examination shows several large blue ecchymoses over the back and abdomen. The patient cries vigorously when the physician attempts to move the patient’s left lower extremity. The neck is supple. The lungs are clear to auscultation. The spleen tip is palpated. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin
5.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count
45,000/mm3
Segmented neutrophils
6%
Lymphocytes
92%
Blast cells
2%
Platelet count
40,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
150 mm/h
AP and lateral x-rays of the pelvis and left lower extremity show a permeative osteolytic lesion at the diaphysis of the proximal femur. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 3 of 50
3. Question
A previously healthy 47-year-old man comes to the physician because of progressive difficulty swallowing during the past 3 months. He reports that both solid foods and liquids seem to “get hung up” behind the lower part of his breast bone. He has had to take smaller bites, chew better, and eat more slowly than he has in the past. He has not had any change in weight. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A barium swallow is shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 4 of 50
4. Question
A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of nonradiating low back pain that she first noticed after doing some heavy lifting at work. She has not had numbness or weakness in her lower extremities or any bowel or bladder dysfunction. At the age of 12 years, she received the diagnosis of scoliosis; her condition was evaluated with periodic x-rays but did not require the use of a brace or operative repair. On examination, straight-leg raising is negative. Muscle strength is normal, and sensation is intact. Pedal pulses are 2+. Plain x-rays of the spine show a 15-degree curvature of the thoracic spine and mild degenerative changes of the lumbosacral spine. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of this patient’s scoliosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 5 of 50
5. Question
An otherwise healthy 21-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. In the emergency department, her pulse was 120/min, respirations were 20/min, and blood pressure was 90/70 mm Hg. After intravenous administration of 2 L of 0.9% saline, her blood pressure increases to 110/75 mm Hg. In the operating room, her hematocrit is 25%. Transfusion with packed red blood cells is begun, and general anesthesia is administered. As the skin is prepped for the operation, her blood pressure decreases to 65/30 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on an Fio2 of 0.40 shows an oxygen saturation of 75%. There is acute increased airway resistance to mechanical ventilation. The patient’s blood pressure does not respond to 100% oxygen and 0.9% saline boluses. Two minutes later, her systolic blood pressure is 50 mm Hg. Her temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 6 of 50
6. Question
A previously healthy 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of weakness in his right hand and legs and a 2-month history of mild neck pain. He drinks six beers daily. Examination shows marked atrophy of the hands, worse on the right than on the left, and lower extremities. There are fasciculations of the right upper extremity. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ in the upper and lower extremities. Babinski sign is present bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 7 of 50
7. Question
A healthy 27-year-old woman comes to the physician requesting a PPD skin test. She works as a clerk at a physician’s office and is concerned about tuberculosis even though she has no known exposure. Examination shows no abnormalities. A PPD skin test produces 19 mm of erythema and 8 mm of induration at 48 hours. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 8 of 50
8. Question
A 47-year-old man comes to the physician 24 hours after the onset of fever and nausea. He has a 4-week history of diarrhea that has increased in volume and frequency. The diarrhea has not responded to use of over-the-counter medications, and he now passes watery brown stools 8 to 10 times daily. During the past 5 days, he has had mild abdominal cramps that are relieved by bowel movements. Prior to the onset of his symptoms, he went on a 2-week vacation to Mexico and took ciprofloxacin daily. He has not had fecal incontinence or any other symptoms. He has no history of serious illness. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), pulse is 86/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft. There is right upper quadrant tenderness with no rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are increased in all quadrants. The liver is tender and enlarged. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin
9.8 g/dL
Leukocyte count
17,200/mm3
Serum
Total bilirubin
3.8 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase
279 U/L
AST
96 U/L
ALT
84 U/L
Examination of the stool shows leukocytes. Test of the stool for Clostridium difficile toxin is negative. A CT scan of the abdomen shows an 8-cm cystic mass in the right lobe of the liver. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient’s CT scan findings?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 9 of 50
9. Question
A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department 6 hours after the onset of moderate lower abdominal cramps and intermittent nausea. She has not vomited during this time. She says that her last menstrual period was 2 months ago, but she has had intermittent bleeding since then, including spotting for the past 2 days. Menarche was at the age of 15 years. Menses occur at irregular 25- to 45-day intervals. She is sexually active and uses condoms inconsistently. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 94/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft abdomen with lower quadrant tenderness, especially on the right. Bowel sounds are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 10 of 50
10. Question
A 52-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, comes to the physician because of a 10-month history of severe hot flashes and difficulty sleeping. Menses occur at 3- to 4-month intervals. Menses previously occurred at regular 28-day intervals. Her only medication is lorazepam for generalized anxiety disorder. Examination, including pelvic examination, shows no abnormalities. The uterus is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 11 of 50
11. Question
Ten newborns who were cared for in the same nursery develop a pustular rash within a week of discharge from the hospital. Culture of skin lesions grows Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following is the most likely source of the infection?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 12 of 50
12. Question
A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of low-grade fever, cough productive of green sputum, and progressive shortness of breath. Initially, her shortness of breath occurred only with exertion, but last night she had to sleep in a chair to breathe. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with diet and glipizide and mild congestive heart failure treated with lisinopril. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 24/min, and blood pressure is 140/60 mm Hg. Breath sounds are decreased over the left lower lung field, and there is dullness to percussion. A grade 2/6 midsystolic murmur is heard. An x-ray of the chest shows a large left pleural effusion. A thoracentesis is performed. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Total protein
7 g/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
230 U/L
Pleural fluid
pH
7.1
Glucose
20 mg/dL
Protein
6 g/dL
LDH
200 U/L
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 13 of 50
13. Question
A 37-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 12 hours after ingesting drain cleaner in a suicide attempt. On arrival, he is sitting up and drooling. He is unable to swallow because of intense throat pain. His pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Examination shows erythema and edema of the oropharynx with some erosions of the soft palate. There is pain on palpation of the neck. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows a normal S1 and S2 without rubs, murmurs, or gallops. There is minimal epigastric tenderness, and bowel sounds are normal. An anteroposterior x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 14 of 50
14. Question
A 27-year-old man comes for a routine health maintenance examination. He has had six episodes of acute pancreatitis over the past 8 years; his most recent episode occurred 3 months ago and resolved spontaneously. He has had recurrent episodes of abdominal pain since childhood. There is no history of abdominal trauma. He takes no medications and does not drink alcohol. Examination shows no hepatosplenomegaly or abdominal masses. There is no tenderness to palpation. Studies of the gallbladder and biliary tract show normal findings. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 15 of 50
15. Question
A 4-year-old boy is diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia. Although his parents are told that chemotherapy could increase his chance of survival by 80%, they state that they wish to treat the boy with herbal therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 16 of 50
16. Question
A 72-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 36-hour history of severe pain in his right thigh. He rates his pain as an 8 on a 10-point scale and describes it as deep, dull, and achy. The pain increases when he moves or bears weight on the right leg. Over-the-counter ibuprofen decreased the pain to a 6 on a 10-point scale. The patient has stage IV adenocarcinoma of the lung, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, peptic ulcer disease, and coronary artery disease. His medications are metoprolol and inhaled albuterol-ipratropium. On arrival, an intravenous bolus of morphine (2 mg) is administered. Thirty minutes later, the patient rates the pain as a 4. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 162/68 mm Hg. Bilateral end-expiratory wheezes are heard. There is tenderness to palpation over the anterior aspect of the right midthigh. His leukocyte count is 6800/mm3 with a normal differential. An x-ray of the right femur shows a midshaft lytic lesion. In addition to oral morphine, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 17 of 50
17. Question
A 57-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. Menses occur at irregular 28- to 42-day intervals. She has not had hot flashes. She has no history of serious illness or abnormal Pap smears, and she takes no medications. She is 157 cm (5 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 102 kg (225 lb); BMI is 41 kg/m2. Physical examination, including pelvic examination, shows no abnormalities. Her serum fasting glucose concentration is 140 mg/dL. During the next 10 years, this patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 18 of 50
18. Question
During the past 2 weeks, a 17-year-old boy with a 5-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus has had episodes of severe hypoglycemia, confusion, and disorientation after playing basketball for 30 minutes after school. He has been advised to consume additional carbohydrates before playing but refuses because of his concern about high blood sugar. He is being treated with 20 U of NPH insulin and 10 U of insulin lispro before breakfast and 15 U of NPH insulin and 8 U of insulin lispro before dinner. Until recently, his blood glucose concentrations have been in the range of 100 mg/dL to 160 mg/dL before each meal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 19 of 50
19. Question
An 8-month-old boy is brought to the physician because his parents are concerned about his development. They report that he had learned to stand with support at the age of 4 months but has been unable to stand with or without support during the past 2 weeks. During this period, he has cried when held around his chest. His parents add that he has not grown much during the past 2 months. He was born at term following an uncomplicated pregnancy and delivery. He receives no medications. His diet consists of breast milk, rice cereal, and pureed fruits. His family lives in a cold climate. At his last examination 2 months ago, he was at the 25th percentile for length and weight. Today, he is at the 3rd percentile for length and 10th percentile for weight. He is alert and mildly irritable. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a dark complexion. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft. The wrists are widened and tender. He screams when picked up and when placed in a standing position. X-rays of the right wrist and left knee are shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 20 of 50
20. Question
A 47-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of fever during the past 8 hours. Two days ago, he sustained a small puncture wound to his lower abdomen while repairing a fence in a barnyard. He did not seek treatment at that time. He has a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with glargine insulin. He appears lethargic. His temperature is 40°C (104°F), pulse is 130/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows an exquisitely tender puncture wound over the right lower quadrant and surrounding erythema and warmth. During the next hour, the physician notices a 3-cm extension of the erythema. In addition to administration of intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 21 of 50
21. Question
A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of feelings of sadness and despair since his wife left him for another man 5 days ago. He also has had decreased appetite, difficulty sleeping, poor concentration, decreased energy, and no interest in the activities he previously enjoyed. He does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. He has a sad mood and dysphoric affect. He has had thoughts of ending his life but has no plan to kill himself. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 22 of 50
22. Question
A 57-year-old woman with cirrhosis secondary to chronic hepatitis C is hospitalized because of tense ascites. Her medications are propranolol, furosemide, and spironolactone. On admission, her serum creatinine concentration is 1 mg/dL. Five liters of ascitic fluid is removed on therapeutic paracentesis. Intravenous furosemide and oral spironolactone therapy are begun. During the next 2 days, the patient has a 3.6-kg (8-lb) weight loss. Her pulse is 85/min and regular, and blood pressure is 100/65 mm Hg. Examination shows scleral icterus. Breath sounds are decreased at both lung bases. Abdominal examination shows moderate ascites. Laboratory studies show:
Prothrombin time
30 sec (INR=2.1)
Serum
Na+
115 mEq/L
K+
3.8 mEq/L
Cl−
79 mEq/L
HCO3−
28 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen
30 mg/dL
Creatinine
2.1 mg/dL
Albumin
2.3 g/dL
Urine volume
<500 mL
In addition to discontinuing spironolactone and furosemide, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 23 of 50
23. Question
A 77-year-old woman with dementia, Alzheimer type, is transferred to the emergency department from a skilled nursing care facility because of a 1-day history of abdominal distention, vomiting, and a right groin mass. She has a 15-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus controlled with diet. She is not oriented to person, place, or time. Her temperature is 37.6°C (99.7°F), pulse is 95/min, respirations are 15/min, and blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Examination shows decreased skin turgor. The abdomen is soft, distended, and mildly tender. Bowel sounds are high pitched. There is a 3-cm, tender, nonreducible mass below the right inguinal ligament. X-rays of the chest and abdomen show dilated loops of small bowel with no gas in the colon; there is a gas-filled loop near the right inguinal ligament. An emergency operation is planned. Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy prior to this patient’s operation?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 24 of 50
24. Question
A 77-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 2 hours after the sudden onset of shortness of breath. She has hyperlipidemia treated with atorvastatin and hypertension treated with lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and amlodipine. She is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 55 kg (120 lb); BMI is 21 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 104/min, respirations are 24/min, and blood pressure is 194/102 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 83%. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. There is an S4. Her serum creatinine concentrations 1 year ago and today are 1.5 mg/dL and 2 mg/dL, respectively. Intravenous furosemide is administered, and her symptoms improve. Echocardiography shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 25 of 50
25. Question
A 67-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of persistent cough productive of white sputum. The cough awakens her from sleep and is not relieved by an over-the-counter cough suppressant. Last night, she had an episode of sweating and flushing that occurred immediately following a coughing episode. During the past 3 days, she has had three episodes of vomiting after coughing. One month ago, she had nasal congestion, low-grade fever, and sneezing that resolved spontaneously. She did not have postnasal drainage. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She smoked one-half pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years but quit 40 years ago. She volunteers at a soup kitchen once weekly. The patient appears healthy and is not coughing. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 91/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 95%. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Her leukocyte count is 22,000/mm3 (39% segmented neutrophils, 1% bands, and 60% lymphocytes). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 26 of 50
26. Question
A 50-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes to the office to discuss smoking cessation. The patient says she has tried to quit smoking five times in the past but has been discouraged because each time she resumed smoking. Medical history is also significant for hypertension. Medications include ipratropium, albuterol, and amlodipine. The patient has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for the past 35 years. BMI is 18 kg/m2. Vital signs are temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse 70/min, respirations 16/min, and blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination discloses clubbing of the fingers. Auscultation of the lungs discloses scattered wheezes. The patient says she is willing to make another attempt to quit smoking and to set a quit date. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 27 of 50
27. Question
A 22-year-old man comes to the physician for a health maintenance examination. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. He has no known allergies. At the age of 3 years, he underwent orchiopexy for cryptorchidism. The patient does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 58/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 104/68 mm Hg. Examination shows a well-healed scar in the right inguinal region. No other abnormalities are noted. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following disorders?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 28 of 50
28. Question
A previously healthy 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 12-hour history of increasing fever and confusion. He has never seen a physician. He takes no medications. His temperature is 40°C (104°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 100/70 mm Hg. On arrival, he is delirious. Examination shows a diffuse rash over the body. A photograph of the rash is shown. There is moderate nuchal rigidity. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Immunization against which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient’s condition?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 29 of 50
29. Question
A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of moderate left-sided lower abdominal pain. She also has had nausea and loss of appetite during this time. She has not had vomiting. She has hypertension well controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. Her temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation of the left lower quadrant; there is no guarding or rebound. Bowel sounds are decreased. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin
13.2 g/dL
Hematocrit
36%
Leukocyte count
14,000/mm3
Platelet count
350,000/mm3
Results of other laboratory studies are within the reference ranges. Chest and abdominal x-rays show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 30 of 50
30. Question
A 47-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has hypertension treated with ramipril and gout treated with allopurinol. He has not had a gout flare during the past 6 months. His only other medication is aspirin. He is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 109 kg (240 lb); BMI is 34 kg/m2. His blood pressure is 152/95 mm Hg. Examination shows truncal obesity. Six months ago, his serum creatinine concentration was 1.4 mg/dL. Serum studies today show:
Na+
134 mEq/L
K+
4.8 mEq/L
Cl–
104 mEq/L
HCO3–
24 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen
43 mg/dL
Glucose
107 mg/dL
Creatinine
1.5 mg/dL
Uric acid
6.4 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate additional pharmacotherapy?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 31 of 50
31. Question
A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 20 weeks’ gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. She has hypertension well controlled with labetalol. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and ended in spontaneous vaginal delivery of a newborn at term. Her only other medication is a prenatal vitamin. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Examination shows no peripheral edema. Urinalysis shows no glucose or protein. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following pregnancy complications?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 32 of 50
32. Question
A 10-year-old boy with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is brought to the physician by his parents for a follow-up examination. He has a 5-year history of hyperactivity, impulsivity, and distractibility at home and school. Cognitive behavioral therapy for the patient and his parents has yielded mild improvement in the patient’s symptoms. The patient has no other history of serious illness and takes no medications. A maternal cousin has epilepsy, and a maternal uncle died at the age of 25 years while playing basketball. The patient’s vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The patient fidgets throughout the examination. Mental status examination shows easy distractibility. The parents say they are considering pharmacotherapy for the patient but are concerned about the potential adverse effects of psychostimulants. In addition to discussing the risks and benefits of pharmacotherapy for this patient’s condition, which of the following is the most appropriate next step before initiating psychostimulant therapy?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 33 of 50
33. Question
A 21-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 3-day history of vomiting and malaise and a 6-day history of abdominal cramping. One week ago, she had a medically induced abortion at 44 days’ gestation, with use of oral mifepristone and vaginal misoprostol. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She follows a vegetarian diet. She appears ill. Temperature is 39.0°C (102.0°F), pulse is 151/min, respirations are 32/min, and blood pressure is 89/56 mm Hg. Physical examination discloses coarse breath sounds, a soft, nondistended abdomen, and 1+ pitting edema. Results of laboratory studies are shown:
Hemoglobin
16 g/dL
Hematocrit
49%
Leukocyte count
39,500/mm3
Platelet count
498,810/mm3
Serum
Na+
135 mEq/L
K+
4.9 mEq/L
Cl−
104 mEq/L
HCO3−
17 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen
25 mg/dL
Glucose [2-h postprandial]
99 mg/dL
Creatinine
1.8 mg/dL
Blood cultures grow gram-positive rods. Which of the following infectious agents is the most likely cause of these findings?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 34 of 50
34. Question
A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital because of a 1-day history of fever, and edema and erythema of the right arm. She says that overnight her right arm began throbbing and the redness worsened. She also had chills and increasingly severe arm pain throughout the night. Her temperature reached 38.9°C (102°F) at home. One year ago, she had stage II breast cancer treated with right partial mastectomy, lymphadenectomy, and radiation therapy. She was treated with a compression sleeve for lymphedema of the right upper extremity postoperatively. She has osteoarthritis of the shoulders and hands, which limits the use of her upper extremities. She says her symptoms have always been present since the operation, but the swelling has worsened since yesterday. Her temperature is 38.3°C (101°F), pulse is 88/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a bright red, well-demarcated area from 3 cm below the elbow to 3 cm above the ulnar prominence; it is exquisitely tender to light touch. The patient has moderate tenderness to palpation of the right upper extremity. There are no open areas over the skin or fingers. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin
11.4 g/dL
Hematocrit
35%
Mean corpuscular volume
82 μm3
Leukocyte count
19,200/mm3
Platelet count
260,000/mm3
Which of the following is the most likely infectious agent?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 35 of 50
35. Question
A 22-year-old woman comes to the clinic because her sexual partner told her that he was treated for Chlamydia trachomatis infection 1 week ago. They have not had sexual intercourse since he was treated. She has been sexually active and monogamous with this partner for 2 months and uses a vaginal contraceptive ring correctly and condoms inconsistently. The patient was treated for C. trachomatis infection 4 months ago, but she did not return for follow-up testing for reinfection. She has no other history of serious illness and currently takes no medications. Physical examination, including pelvic examination, shows no abnormalities. Testing for C. trachomatis is done. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 36 of 50
36. Question
A 57-year-old man comes to the office because of a 3-week history of generalized itchiness and yellow eyes. He has not had abdominal pain, fever, or night sweats. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. He smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 20 years but quit 17 years ago. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows conjunctival icterus. The abdomen is soft and nontender; there are no masses. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis shows a 3-cm mass at the head of the pancreas and dilated common bile and intrahepatic bile ducts. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) shows no mucosal abnormality. A stent is placed in the common bile duct. Results of bile culture and cytology are negative. Results of a fine-needle biopsy of the mass show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 37 of 50
37. Question
An 18-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by paramedics 20 minutes after he sustained a gunshot wound to his head. En route to the hospital, he was intubated, mechanically ventilated, and administered 2 L of intravenous 0.9% saline. On arrival, he is unresponsive. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 3. Examination shows fixed and dilated pupils. Findings of brain death are confirmed by a neurosurgeon and trauma surgeon. The most appropriate person to approach this patient’s family about organ donation is which of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 38 of 50
38. Question
A 42-year-old woman who underwent an endoscopic sinus operation 30 minutes ago has the sudden onset of tachycardia and hypotension. The procedure was completed under general anesthesia without complications, and estimated blood loss was 25 mL. She has a 10-year history of asthma treated with oral prednisone. She is awake and responsive. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.5°F), pulse is 120/min and regular, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 75/50 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on 2 L/min of oxygen by nasal cannula shows an oxygen saturation of 90%. Examination shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with no acute ST-segment changes. In addition to administration of intravenous fluids, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 39 of 50
39. Question
A 32-year-old woman comes to the office because of a painless mass in the right side of her neck that she first noticed 2 months ago. The mass has not increased in size since she first saw it, and she reports no other masses. Medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. She is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 57 kg (125 lb); BMI is 20 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a 2-cm mass in the right upper lobe of the thyroid gland. There is no lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 40 of 50
40. Question
A 10-year-old boy is brought to the office by his mother for a well-child examination. He has no history of serious illness and receives no medications. He is in no distress. He is at the 75th percentile for height, 50th percentile for weight, and 20th percentile for BMI. Vital signs are within normal limits. On cardiac examination, a mid-systolic ejection murmur is heard best at the left sternal border; there is an S4. No other abnormalities are noted. Echocardiography is most likely to show which of the following?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 41 of 50
41. Question
A 25-year-old woman comes to the office for a follow-up examination 4 weeks after being diagnosed with HIV infection. She feels well. She used intravenous drugs for 5 years but stopped 2 years ago. She has been sexually active with one male partner during the past year; they use condoms consistently. Results of PPD skin testing 6 months ago were negative. She has no other history of serious illness and takes no medications. Her pulse is 68/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 105/60 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. Examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin
14 g/dL
Hematocrit
42%
Leukocyte count
9000/mm3
Platelet count
350,000/mm3
Serum
Glucose
90 mg/dL
Creatinine
0.8 mg/dL
Total bilirubin
0.5 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase
50 U/L
AST
35 U/L
ALT
35 U/L
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 42 of 50
42. Question
An 82-year-old woman with hypertension comes to the office because of a 2-month history of easy fatigability and shortness of breath with mild exertion. She says she has to use two pillows to sleep and breathe comfortably. She had a myocardial infarction at the age of 75 years. Her medications are hydrochlorothiazide, fosinopril, and potassium supplementation. She has never smoked cigarettes. Her pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg. Crackles are heard at the lung bases bilaterally. There is pitting edema of the lower extremities. No other abnormalities are noted. Which of the following is the most likely set of findings in this patient?
Option
Sympathetic Tone
Renal Blood Flow
Urine Sodium Concentration
A
Decreased
Decreased
Increased
B
Decreased
Increased
Increased
C
Increased
Decreased
Decreased
D
Increased
Decreased
Increased
E
Increased
Increased
Decreased
Correct
Incorrect
Question 43 of 50
43. Question
A 19-year-old man comes to the office because of a 10-hour history of shortness of breath and sharp, retrosternal chest pain radiating to his neck and left shoulder. The pain is worse with movement or swallowing. He also has a 1-week history of fever, malaise, myalgia, diarrhea, cough, and a scratchy sore throat. He has been unable to work as a summer lifeguard during this period. He smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. His temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 70/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg. Examination and x-rays of the chest show normal findings. An ECG is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 44 of 50
44. Question
A 62-year-old woman with metastatic adenocarcinoma of the breast is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-week history of weakness and a tingling sensation that has progressed from her lower legs to her chest. During the past 3 weeks, she has had mild to moderate interscapular pain, which is worse at night. Her only medication is tamoxifen. She does not appear to be in distress. Vital signs are within normal limits. Muscle strength is 4/5 in the lower extremities and 5/5 in the upper extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ in the lower extremities and 2+ in the upper extremities. Babinski sign is absent. Sensation to pinprick is decreased to the level of the mid chest. An MRI of the spine confirms the diagnosis. Administration of which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 45 of 50
45. Question
A case-control study is planned to determine the association between retinal detachment and occupations that require lifting heavy objects. A total of 200 patients of a large ophthalmologic clinic aged 40 to 80 years will be recruited for the study. Patients will be asked about their histories of lifting objects weighing more than 25 kg (55 lb). Which of the following is the best strategy in study design to decrease confounding by age for history of heavy lifting?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 46 of 50
46. Question
A 21-year-old man comes to the office for a follow-up visit 1 week after urine dipstick analysis, performed for a sports physical examination, showed an increased protein concentration. He is asymptomatic. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. The patient does not smoke cigarettes, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. He trains for college basketball most of the year. He is 191 cm (6 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 84 kg (185 lb); BMI is 23 kg/m2. His temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse is 58/min, respirations are 10/min, and blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg. Examination shows no abnormalities. Results of laboratory studies are within the reference ranges. Urinalysis shows 1+ protein. Spot urine protein:creatinine ratio was <0.2 at 8 am and 0.7 at 4 pm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 47 of 50
47. Question
A 63-year-old man comes to the office because of chronic intermittent mild chest pain that usually occurs when he walks up two flights of stairs. He is otherwise asymptomatic. He has hypertension and coronary artery disease. He is adherent to his medication regimen of atorvastatin, clopidogrel, carvedilol, and aspirin. He has a sedentary lifestyle. He smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 25 years but now smokes five cigarettes daily. He is 173 cm (5 ft 8 in) tall and weighs 91 kg (200 lb); BMI is 30 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 130/65 mm Hg. Examination shows no other abnormalities. The patient asks about undergoing revascularization. The physician is aware of a randomized controlled trial in which aggressive lifestyle management is comparable to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) in terms of meaningful cardiovascular outcomes. Which of the following statistical features of the study is most supportive of a recommendation for lifestyle management in this patient?
Option
α Level
β Level (%)
A
0.20
5
B
0.20
10
C
0.25
10
D
0.25
20
E
0.50
50
Correct
Incorrect
Question 48 of 50
48. Question
An 82-year-old man is admitted to the hospital 4 hours after he fell at home. His wife, who witnessed the fall, says his legs “gave out” when he stood up from his armchair. He was initially unresponsive but regained consciousness after 20 seconds. He did not have bowel or bladder incontinence during the episode. Medical history is remarkable for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Medications are amlodipine, metformin, atorvastatin, and tamsulosin. On arrival at the hospital, pulse is 78/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 98/72 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 97%. Cardiac examination discloses a late-peaking, barking systolic murmur heard at the upper right sternal border without an appreciable S2. Carotid upstrokes are diminished, and peripheral pulses are symmetrically weak. The remainder of the physical examination discloses no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a serum glucose concentration of 117 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient’s fall?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 49 of 50
49. Question
A 7-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother for a well-child examination. The mother is single, and the patient is the third of five children. The family comes late to the appointment because they missed the first bus on the route to the clinic. The patient’s medical record shows that she missed her last two appointments and was last seen for a physical examination 2 years ago. The mother reports her daughter has frequent illnesses. She receives no medications. The patient is clean and appropriately dressed but appears tired and sluggish. She is at the 50th percentile for height, 10th percentile for weight, and below the 5th percentile for BMI. Two years ago, she was at the 50th percentile for height, 25th percentile for weight, and 15th percentile for BMI. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows dry, flaky skin and brittle hair. No other abnormalities are noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct
Incorrect
Question 50 of 50
50. Question
A 44-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of a 6-month history of persistent skin lesions over her scalp and neck despite topical clobetasol therapy. She has hypertension and discoid lupus erythematosus. Her only other medication is hydrochlorothiazide. Temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse is 82/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 126/74 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 99%. Physical examination shows several erythematous indurated plaques with overlying scales over the scalp and lateral aspects of the neck. Oropharynx is moist and pink without lesions. There is no joint swelling, tenderness, or erythema. Cardiopulmonary, abdominal, and neurologic examinations disclose no abnormalities. The physician prescribes hydroxychloroquine once daily to be increased to twice daily during the next 2 weeks. Which of the following screening studies is most appropriate at this time?
Correct
Incorrect
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